Continued from Chapter 10a
Trinitarians cite this passage as further evidence of their allegation that the term “angel of the Lord” refers to part of a triune deity. To them, the text seems to indicate that the angel who appears as a fiery manifestation to Moses is the same being as the God who afterwards speaks to him. However, on further examination, the textual evidence leans in favor of the view that this angel of the Lord functions here solely as a fiery manifestation which attracts Moses’ attention, while it is the God of Israel who actually “appeared,” that is, made Himself known and spoke to Moses. Yet, the issue of whether God Himself speaks at some point or an angel speaks in God’s name to Moses cannot be conclusively decided one way or the other.
In any case, the angel is not one-third of God. For our discussion, a final decision as to whether God speaks directly to Moses or through the medium of an angel is not crucial. Even if one believes that the angel, rather than God, speaks to Moses, it should be remembered that when, as God’s representative, an angel (messenger) appears before a person, it is considered as if God Himself has appeared. As stated above, an angel repeats the exact message given to him by God. If, in verse 14, it is actually an angel that speaks directly to Moses, then he is merely conveying the Lord’s message concerning His name. That the message in this verse, even if delivered through an intermediary, is actually from the Lord is indicated by the fact that whenever an angel of the Lord is asked in the Scriptures for his name, he always refuses to give it. This is understandable, since he is only a messenger, with his own personal identity being of no importance. Therefore, he is identified with the sender of the message. Yet, in verse 14, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob does give His name. In so doing, He indicates that He is not synonymous with what the Bible calls “an angel of the Lord.” All in all, “an angel of the Lord” can in no way be identified as part of the divine essence.
The Septuagint renders malach ’Ado-nai (Y-H-V-H) as anggelos Kyriou with the meaning “an angel of the Lord” (e.g., Judges 6:11) and “the angel of the Lord” is rendered by ho anggelos Kyriou (e.g., Judges 6:12). The author of the Gospel of Matthew writes: “But when he [Joseph] had considered this, behold, an angel of the Lord [anggelos Kyriou] appeared to him in a dream, saying, ‘Joseph, son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary as your wife; for that which has been conceived in her is of holy spirit.’ …And Joseph arose from his sleep, and did as the angel of the Lord [ho anggelos Kyriou] commanded him, and took [her] as his wife” (Matthew 1:20-24). The wording, “an angel of the Lord,” reappears in Matthew 2:13, 19; 28:2. The author of the Gospel of Luke writes: “An angel of the Lord [anggelos Kyriou] appeared to him [Zacharias], standing to the right of the altar of incense” (Luke 1:11). Luke 1:19a identifies the angel of the Lord as Gabriel: “And the angel … said to him [Zecharias], ‘I am Gabriel, who stands in the presence of God.” It is further stated: “Now in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God to a city in Galilee, called Nazareth, to a virgin … and the virgin’s name was Mary” (Luke 1:26-27).2 Elizabeth later exclaims: “And blessed is she [Mary] who believed that there would be a fulfillment of what had been spoken to her by [the] Lord [Kyriou]” (Luke 1:45). Although the things spoken were supposedly said to Mary by Gabriel, an angel of the Lord (Luke 1:26-27), Luke’s Elizabeth refers to them as spoken by the “Lord.”
In Luke 2:9-10 it is stated, “And an angel of the Lord [anggelos Kyriou] suddenly stood before them [the shepherds] … And the angel said to them.…” The author of Luke understands the angel’s message as having come from the Lord rather than from the angel, hence in Luke 1:15 the angel’s message is said to come from the Lord. As mentioned above, some Christians maintain that “angel of the Lord” refers to Jesus in the Jewish Scriptures. In considering the New Testament usage of “angel of the Lord” with and without the definite article one must ask how if this angel is Jesus, he can be in the womb of Mary while speaking to her (Luke 1:30) and Joseph (Matthew 1:20) respectively in the third person, he can speak to the shepherds in the fields when he was in the manger (Luke 2:9), or is able to roll away the stone from the tomb when he was supposedly inside the tomb (Matthew 28:2). Moreover, is Jesus to be identified as the angel Gabriel who the author of Luke identifies as the angel of the Lord? One might say that the biblical “angel of the Lord” is not the same angel identified as such by the New Testament. But, if “angel of the Lord” is consistently a title of Jesus in the Jewish Scriptures why is that name inexplicably handed over to another angel in the New Testament? It would be, indeed, strange if the New Testament angel (Gabriel) is now called after this name if it was a special title belonging to Jesus.
1 Some Christian Bibles translate this verse as: “Why is it that you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?” “Wonderful is a secondary meaning which is used in the sense of “incomprehensible,” “marvelous.” It is not to be understood as a proper name identifying the angel. The Hebrew word peli (“hidden,” “wonderful”) indicates that the name is beyond the realm of human knowledge. 2 “Gabriel,” means “Man of God,” or “Strength of God.” In his only biblical appearance (Daniel 8:15-16, 9:21) he is described as a man. Enoch 40:2 describes him as one of the four presences who look down from heaven (9:1), a holy angel (20:7), set over all powers (40:9). He is also the angel set over Paradise, over the serpents and the cherubim (20:7), and has the power to destroy the wicked (54:6).
(See The Apocrypha and Pseudepigrapha of the Old Testament in English, Ed. R.H. Charles, Oxford: Clarendon Press, Vol. 2, 1913.)
Continued